Answers and Explanations
Answer A is the best answer. A kickoff meeting is indeed one of the first things a project manager should schedule and is in fact the initial task in scope planning. Answer B is tempting, because the amount of money for use on the project could indeed be a constraint; ideally, however, a project manager will determine the scope, activities, and resources needed, and then develop the budget needed. Answer C is also tempting in terms of showing authority to do a project; however, John's CIO just authorized him to do the project, and a business card does not necessarily give him the authority. Answer D is incorrect because scope definition is after scope planning, and requires as input the scope statement, which is defined in scope planning.
Answer C is correct because a scope statement addresses the description of the business need, high-level objectives and deliverables, and a brief description of the project. This will help to get everyone on the same page. Answer A does not address everything that a scope statement addresses, so it is not the best answer. Answer B is incorrect because the project charter does not include resource assignments and time frames. Answer D is tempting because holding a kickoff meeting does indeed serve that purpose, but the scope statement is what will help to get the project focused correctly.
Answer B is the best answer because it is a technique associated with cost estimating. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect; because Paul is ready to begin progressive elaboration of scope and tasks, he is ready for scope planning and scope definition, and these are tools and techniques used for those tasks.
Answer B is correct. Answer A is tempting because the problem focuses on changes. However, because we are talking about the elaboration of the product's characteristics, we are talking about scope changes, and therefore Answer B is the best answer. Answer C is also tempting because it is difficult to move forward on a project until the scope is clearly defined (especially in systems development projects), but with products and certain types of web development, scope changes can be frequent, and a formal scope management plan is needed. Answer D is true from a project perspective, but does not address the scope issues.
Answer B is correct. This is an example of a PMI question that tells you what the work product or output is, but expects you to know how to use business knowledge to apply to the question. Arguments can be made for many assumptions, but in this case, the best answer is Answer B. The biggest assumption, and an incorrect one (which might have been avoided had it been stated), was that federal safety standards were sufficient to make a toy safe. The constraint is the time frame in which the toy must be ready, and part of the product description should include that the toy is a red-haired doll. Answer A is incorrect because the statement "the product must be ready for the market in February" is a constraint and not an assumption. Answer C is incorrect because the statement "the product is a toy" does not provide enough information to be considered a product description. Answer D is incorrect because the statement "the toy must appeal to toy retailers" is not a product description.
Answer C is correct. Bob has a pretty clear scope and defined deliverables. In order to be able to estimate project cost and time, the next step would be to create a work breakdown structure of the deliverables decomposed into component tasks. Answer A is incorrect because even though Bob doesn't have a lot of information at this point, as a project manager, it is his job to progressively elaborate the project. Answer B is incorrect because Bob's summary of tasks and expectations is essentially his scope statement. Answer D is incorrect because Bob cannot rely solely on his personal experience to deliver an accurate cost and time estimate.
Answer A is the best answer. Because the scope statement and WBS define the work to be done and the WBS is intended to also ensure no unnecessary work is done, Doug can look at these with the project manager to understand any differences he perceives. Answer B is incorrect because meeting minutes, although helpful historical documents, do not define the "contracted" scope. Answer C is also a helpful document, but will not tell Doug the details of what he needs to know. Answer D is tempting, but not the best answer. Reviewing the actual WBS provides a documented and clear definition vision of the end product of the project. A conversation does not.
Answer D is correct. This is tricky, because the WBS helps to facilitate communication, but is not the foundation of communication. Answers A, B, and C are all supported directly by the WBS.
Answer B is correct. A WBS should be structured with a deliverable focus. PMI feels project failure can result from nondeliverable focused WBS elements. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because they are items that can help in the development of a WBS.
Answer B is the best answer. Although it might be true that Ralph does not have the insight into her project, Sally's first step should be to review the WBS and be sure it is at a sufficient level of detail to provide the accuracy of estimates. Answer A is incorrect because reinterviewing SMEs does not address the root of the problem. Sally can do so after she has examined the WBS. Answer C is incorrect because a good project manager will always want to produce the best quality project, and the quality control functionif it is auditing a projectprobably has some knowledge of the corporate projects and general expectations. Answer D is incorrect, although it does happen often in real life.
Answer A is correct. Answer B is incorrect because, although the WBS is part of scope definition, both scope definition and activity definition are part of project planning. Answer C might be the attitude that is encountered sometimes in the real world, and Answer D describes project control processes, not activity definition.
Answer C is correct. Often in the planning process, and particularly during progressive elaboration and decomposition, missing deliverables can be identified. This does not mean they are out of scope. The WBS needs to be updated and the activities to support creating that deliverable need to be planned. Answer A is incorrect because it fails to update the WBS. Answers B and D are incorrect because failing to identify a deliverable in the scope definition process does not mean a scope change has occurred.
Answer B is correct. Using the necessary and sufficient test is a technique of decomposition. Are the lowest levels identified both necessary and sufficient to accomplish the deliverable? If not, there might be activities that need to be removed or added. Answer A is tempting because it is true, but it is not an example of the necessary and sufficient concept. Answer C can be true in that contracts often use the necessary and sufficient test as criteria for completeness, but it is not the best answer. Answer D is incorrect because necessary and sufficient conditions is used in law, logic, and a number of other disciplines.
Answer D is correct. Alyea has five of the six inputs to activity definition. Her constraints are the corporate 20-hour work package policy; her expert judgment comes from her SMEs, or subject matter experts; and she is assuming her team room will be ready in time for the project to start. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because identifying assumptions, identifying constraints, and obtaining input from experts on the project are not inputs to the activity definition process.
Answer A is correct. The plans are part of the product description, which needs to be reviewed as input into the activity sequencing process. Answers B and C may be true, but they are not the best answer. Answer D is false, and therefore incorrect.
Answer B is correct. The approval by the Architecture Review Board is a milestone you want to include in activity sequencing so that you can ensure the requirements for meeting the review board's approval are met. Answer A is tempting because the question references phase-end activities; however, it is not an example of gatekeeping because the project is not being authorized to continue based only on the architecture review. Gatekeeping often involves the review of other factors as well. Answer C is incorrect because the requirement of a review board approval does not affect scope. Answer D is incorrect because project integration planning involves project plan development, execution, and integrated change control, which are not related to a review board.
Answer D is correct. The trusses must be completed before the roofing can start; therefore, the roofing has a dependency on the installation of the trusses and is a start-to-finish relationship. Answer A is incorrect because it is hard logic. Answer B is incorrect because it is not a start-to-start relationship. Answer C is incorrect because this problem is an example of an external dependency because the project depends on the supplier for the trusses and the roofing. Because they are correct statements, they are incorrect answers for this question.
Answer B is the best answer because it is related to Project Management. Although Answer A may be true, it is not the best answer. Answer C is another term for a mandatory dependency. Answer D is the acronym for precedence diagramming method, which is a technique used in activity sequencing in which activities are represented in boxes (also known as nodes) and are linked by precedence relationships to show the coordination of the activities that are to be performed.
Answer A is correct. Scoring models are not used with activity sequencing. Answers B, C, and D are activity sequencing tools and therefore incorrect answers to this question. Activity on node (AON) is also known as the precedence diagramming method in which activities are represented by the node. The arrow diagramming method or activity on arrow (AOA) shows the activities on the arrow. GERT is a conditional diagramming method.
Answer D is correct. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because none of those methods allow for nonsequential activities.
Answer B is the best answer. Although company human resource policies might be useful, he already has the policies on his desk for review. New hire information provides no value added for his resourcing decisions and approved vendors are in the policies on his desk, therefore Answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
Answer D is the best answer. Gregg should get some expert advice or expert judgment in finalizing the materials requirements. Answers A, B, and C are correct statements and represent opportunities to find expert judgment and are therefore incorrect answers to this question.
Answer B is the best answer. John is using an estimate based on a project very similar to his own with staff he will be using. Answer A is incorrect because parametric modeling involves using a mathematical model to predict costs, such as dollars per line of code. Answer C is incorrect, although close; if the development project is a common item, such as putting down new flooring, a rule-of-thumb measurement can be used, although it is less accurate. Answer D is incorrect because it is not a form of estimating, but a type of pricing.
Answer A is correct. The characteristics of the resource pool, of which Rich is an expert and Eric is new, are available in the resource pool description. Answers B and C are incorrect but helpful in the resource planning tasks because they both give information on how to plan for resources. Answer D is incorrect because a scope statement, although part of inputs to resource planning, will not help Ray decide which resources to put on the project. Further, a scope statement should not indicate time frames.
Answer B is correct. Nick is using quantity of time for each work category (that is, minutes per foot). Answer A is incorrect because bottom-up estimating takes each work package and estimates it, and then rolls up to a total. Answer C is incorrect because Nick is using quantifiable data rather than a project just like the one he is doing. Answer D is incorrect because there is no such thing.
Answer C is correct. Providing additional hours as a contingency is a risk mitigation strategy; therefore, Answer C is the best answer because we are talking about time. Answer A is incorrect because padding has no basis and is not quantified as a risk or other type of estimate. Padding is highly discouraged by PMI. Answer B is incorrect because adding contingency is not acceptance of a risk, it is simply mitigation. Answer D is not the best answer, although what Raymond is doing is a form of mitigation.
Answer A is correct. In addition to duration estimates, Ryan needs to provide and document the assumptions made in doing the estimates as well as any updates to the activity list that were uncovered. Answer B is incorrect because cost estimates are an output of cost estimating. Answer C is incorrect because updates to resource requirements are an output of schedule development. Answer D is incorrect because a cost baseline is the output of cost estimating.
Answer B is correct. Al's experience is dated. He should be engaging the people doing the work to help with the estimating; therefore, Answer A is incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because it is not the best answer for this question, although it may be true. Answer D may be true, but we have not mentioned anything in the question that involves elapsed time versus actual work.
Answer A is correct. Engaging the project team and adjusting the estimates based on a possible change is the best answer. Answer B is tempting, and many companies choose to go this route, but if Gordon is a key team member, the loss and learning curves will need to be addressed. Answer C is incorrect because buying the insurance does not solve the schedule problem. Answer D is mathematically incorrect. The probability that Gordon would be gone does not translate into changing duration by the same amount.
Answer D is the best answer because Answers A, B, and C are all correct. PMI highly recommends historical data on similar projects. Commercial databases are also another source of information, as is your project team, which is assumed to have the knowledge of working on similar projects. Although Answers A, B, and C are individually correct, the combination of all three statements is the best answer.
Answer B is correct. A range of possible results +/- is the best answer. Answer A is good to have for appropriate estimating, but the estimate of a given work package does not require that all work packages be identified. Further, work packages that are identified in the activity duration process are added to the activities list as an output of activity duration estimating. Answer C is incorrect; in general, activity durations need to be done by or approved by the people actually doing the work. Answer D is tempting because order of magnitude is an estimating term; however, it is associated with cost estimates.
Answer B is correct. Answer A is tempting, but adds the profit margin, which has to do with pricing, not cost. Answer C is similar, but is dealing with competitive pricing. Answer D is tempting, but in a decorating project, the raw materials can be significantly different, even if it is the same size and type of house. Also, Answer D does not factor in labor.
Answer B is correct. Although it is less accurate than adding up individual costs from the WBS, it is less time consuming. The trade-off is accuracy. Answer A is incorrect (but tempting) because to do a more accurate cost estimate, you need to delve into the details. Answer C is tempting also, and possible, except we don't really know if the project in question can use parametric modeling. Answer D is incorrect because it takes the most time, but it is most accurate.
Answer D is correct. Accurate duration estimates are key because the Back-Step Furniture and Kitchen Company is borrowing money. The longer it borrows, the greater the cost of the job. The sooner it can collect for service rendered, the better. Answers A, B, and C are all true, but not the best answer for this question.
Answer B is correct. Estimating at the activity level and aggregating is an example of bottom-up estimating. Answer A is incorrect because top-down estimating is a more general technique. Answer C is incorrect because the Army issue in this problem is a red herring. Answer D is incorrect because parametric estimating involves quantitative measures that can be applied to any scale project.
Answer D is correct. Although a cost management plan can be informal, this is an appropriate scenario for a formal cost management plan, in which a sponsor is very concerned about costs. Answer A is incorrect because it does not adequately address the sponsor's concerns. Answers B and C may actually be part of your cost management plan, but they are not the best answers because both could be in the cost management plan.
Answer B is the best answer. Updates to the activity list are done during acti-vity sequencing and activity duration estimating. Answer A is tempting but not correct because some of the planning processes do not focus on activity list updates. Answer C is incorrect because the output of activity definition is the creation of the activity list, not updating the activity list. Answer D is incorrect because risk planning focuses on how to approach and plan risk management activities.
Answer B is correct. The scope statement is the key output of the scope planning process. Supporting detail (assumptions) and a scope management plan are also outputs from the scope planning process, but not listed. Answer A is incorrect because that is the key output of the initiating process. Answer C is incorrect because scope definition is a planning process. Answer D is incorrect because the WBS is the key output of scope definition.
Answer A is the best answer. Answer B is incorrect because the WBS is the key output of the scope definition process. Answer C is also tempting because people often associate the WBS and activity lists. Activity duration estimating and activity sequencing rely on the activity lists that are generated from the WBS, but they are not the same thing. Although Answer D is tempting, the WBS is a key input only to the processes listed in Answer A.
Answer D is correct. A planning meeting is the technique by which you develop your risk management plan. Answer A shows a commitment to risk management, but is not a technique for planning. Answer B is used for unknown risks as a mitigation strategy. Answer C is one of the inputs to risk planning.
Answer B is correct. A risk management plan is the process by which risks will be handled during the project. Answer A is tempting, and true, but not the best answer. Answer C is also tempting because triggers are an output of risk identification. Answer D may or may not be truewe do not have sufficient information.
Answer C is the best answer. Using the key stakeholders and team leaders as well as a representative of risk management is sufficient for developing a project risk plan. Answers A and B are incorrect because they provides too narrow a viewpoint. Answer D is tempting, but an unnecessary use of time for the risk planning session. A broader group is appropriate for risk identification.
Answer A is the best answer. Although Answer B may be true, high, medium, and low is a method of scoring. Answers C and D are also true, but not the best answers.
Answer A is correct. Answer B defines the timing that should be addressed in the risk management plan. Answer C defines the methodology that should be identified in a risk management plan. Answer D touches on the budgeting and tracking that should be defined in the risk management plan.
Answer D is the best answer. The risk management plan should be appropriate to the level of risk, size of project, and importance to the company. A high risk project that is a strategic imperative for a company should have a more detailed risk management plan. Answers A, B, and C are tempting because they represent inputs to the risk management plan development.
Answer A is the best answer. Although Answers B, C, and D are true, the key factor is ensuring the risk management processes take place so that results are developed early enough to make decisions. Decisions should then be revisited periodically throughout the project.
Answer C is the best answer. The first place to start with a troubled project is to ensure the activities leading up to schedule development are accurate. Therefore, reviewing the scope statement is the first step. Answer A is tempting because dependencies are incorrect in the schedule. As a good turnaround project manager, you should also do Answers B and D and become familiar with the project.
Answer A is the best answer. Although you will need the activity attributes described in Answer B, and the resource pool from Answer D, your resource calendars are the best way to include vacation time into a schedule and develop it appropriately. Answer C is incorrect because leads and lags are used to identify real delays from order time to arrival, or curing time for cement.
Answer A is the best answer. Schedules often need to be iterated to provide accurate information. Answer B is all too often the real-world experience. However, good communication and negotiation with the project sponsor can help mitigate those types of issues. Answers C and D may be true, but we do not have enough information.
Answer A is correct. Answer B is tempting because a critical path does help to manage a project, but it is not the best answer. Answer C focuses on the project, not the activities, and therefore is incorrect. Answer D is part of scheduling, but not the primary focus.
Answer C is correct. Answer A is tempting because calendar activities relate to time and can be constraints. Answer B is incorrect because resource capabilities are not related to time. Answer D is incorrect because responsibility and geography are not related to time.
Answer B is correct. Answer A is tempting because it is true by definition, but Answer B is correct because it properly answers the question, in that these techniques do not take into account resource pool constraints. Answer C is incorrect because it provides possible early and late start and finish dates, but not the actual schedule. Answer D is incorrect because none of the three are simulation techniques.
Answer D is correct. Answer A represents good negotiating techniques for a project manager, in which given the scope, cost, and resources, a particular date is determined. Answer B represents the technique of crashing, in which additional costs are incurred to get the same work done more quickly. Answer C represents fast tracking, in which normally sequential tasks are done in parallel, increasing risk and rework.
Answer A is correct. Critical path method is a project-scheduling technique that focuses on float to determine tasks with the least scheduling flexibility. Answer B is incorrect because PERT focuses on weighted average duration estimates. Answer C is incorrect because crashing is a duration compression technique. Answer D is incorrect because Monte Carlo is a simulation technique that is used in duration estimations.
Answer B is correct. A cost baseline is used to measure and monitor project progress. Answer A is tempting because schedule baselines are often done at the same time. Answers C and D are incorrect because those activities are a part of cost control.
Answer A is correct. Answer B is incorrect because PDM (precedence diagramming method) puts the activities on the node. Answer C is incorrect because the critical path method generally involves durations as well as activities on node. Answer D is incorrect because it is the acronym for American Association of Retired Persons.
Answer A is correct. Answer B is tempting, but a project charter initiates a project and does not provide the execution guidelines (although in real life the charter often includes these items). Answers C and D are incorrect because they are inputs to the project plan development.
Answer A is correct because the time for drying has a dependency with the painting. Answer B is incorrect because you might have some unusual consequences to adding lead time to the task that the drying is not associated with. Answer C is incorrect and will lead to a bad schedule. Answer D is possible, but not the best answer.
Answer A is correct. A schedule coding structure enables the users of the schedule to sort and use it better. Answer B is tempting, but the chart of accounts is related to the WBS, not the schedule. Answer C is incorrect because the coding structure is not only related to system development projects. Answer D is incorrect because it ties incorrect Answer B with correct Answer A and is therefore also incorrect.
Answer D is correct. Answers A and B are true statements, but not the best answers. Answer C is incorrect because staff acquisition is not a core planning process.
Answer D is correct. Answer A is incorrect because it is a description for an organizational chart. Answer B is true in that a WBS is a scope definition artifact, but it is not archived. The WBS is a living document throughout a project. Answer C is incorrect because the project team likely develops the WBS.
Answer C is correct. The WBS helps to focus communication and accountability at a level of detail required to manage a project. Answer A is incorrect because stakeholders do use a WBS. Answer B is incorrect but tempting because a WBS does define scope. However, it is not used to enforce a contractual agreement. Only courts can do that. Answer D is incorrect because an OBS is an organizational breakdown structure, and is not related to project elements.
Answer D is correct. A WBS does not provide the basis for a communications plan; however, it does facilitate communication and provide a framework on which to base reporting. Answers A, B, and C are all pieces of project management that a WBS supports and are correct statements; therefore, they are incorrect answers to this question.
Answer D is correct. Answers A, B, and C are all correct statements because they use the WBS as an input to the process and are therefore incorrect answers to this question.
Answer B is correct. Answer A is incorrect because the WBS hierarchy does not prevent duplication by itself. Answer C is incorrect because a WBS is focused on deliverables and components or work packages and not on tasks. Answer D is incorrect because a WBS can be sized appropriately to the project size with as many levels as necessary.
Answer A is correct. Answer B is what is created when the proper linking takes place. Answer C is not recommended measuring work accomplishment is preferred by PMI. Answer D is incorrect because integration tasks only need to be included in a WBS when several components are being brought together to create a higher-level deliverable.
Answer D is correct. The cost of the WBS effort creation is not a factor considered by PMI as a challenge to create a WBS and is assumed as part of a project. Answers A, B, and C are correct statements and are challenges to creating a well-defined WBS. Therefore, they are incorrect answers to this question.
Answer B is correct. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because they are done after risk events are identified.
Answer D is correct because it is a general factor to consider in periodic reviews of the WBS. Answer A is incorrect because it is a consideration for risk and the WBS. Answer B is incorrect because it is a general consideration with regard to accounting and payroll structures are not considered in a WBS. Answer C is incorrect because determination of element completion is not a key element when developing a WBS.
Answer C is correct because this assumption will have a major impact upon how you approach the bidding on a government project. Limits on power and the use of eminent domain to obtain real property are the other two key assumptions in this example. Answer A may or may not be true, depending on the project. Answer B is incorrect because alternatives are not included in the WBS, regardless if it is a government project. Answer D is incorrect because real property is not included in the WBS.